Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
For $1 \le r \le n-1$,
$n \mid \binom{n}{r}$
whenever $n$ is prime.
This is a key divisibility rule used often in exam questions involving prime indices.
Since every term except the first contains $x$,
$(1+x)^n - 1$ is divisible by $x$.
So $(1+x)^n$ is not fully divisible by $x$, but the expression $(1+x)^n - 1$ always is.
Just like $(a+b)^n$, the expression $(a-b)^n$ is always divisible by $a-b$ for all positive integers $n$, since:
$(a-b)^n = (a-b)\left[(a-b)^{n-1}\right]$
The expression $(a+b)^n$ is always divisible by $a+b$ for every positive integer $n$, because:
$(a+b)^n = (a+b)\left[(a+b)^{n-1}\right]$
So $a+b$ is a factor of the expansion automatically.
To check divisibility, examine each factor separately:
$\binom{n}{r}$
$a^{,n-r}$
$b^{,r}$
If all three are divisible by the required number (or together produce a factor of it), then the term is divisible. This avoids expanding the entire binomial expression